Online Questions - Valid Practice To your 156-215.80 Exam (Updated 525 Questions)
Practice To 156-215.80 - Remarkable Practice On your Check Point Certified Security Administrator R80 Exam
NEW QUESTION 25
Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identifies connections by several attributes. Which of the attributes is NOT
used for identifying connection?
- A. Source Address
- B. Destination Address
- C. Source Port
- D. TCP Acknowledgment Number
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 26
Why would an administrator see the message below?
- A. A new Policy Package created on the Gateway and transferred to the management will be overwritten by the Policy Package currently on the Gateway but can be restored from a periodic backup on the Gateway.
- B. A new Policy Package created on the Gateway is going to be installed on the existing Management.
- C. A new Policy Package created on the Management is going to be installed to the existing Gateway.
- D. A new Policy Package created on both the Management and Gateway will be deleted and must be packed up first before proceeding.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 27
Which type of the Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the
Security Management Server?
- A. Formal
- B. Local
- C. Central
- D. Corporate
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 28
You want to define a selected administrator's permission to edit a layer. However, when you click the + sign in the "Select additional profile that will be able edit this layer" you do not see anything. What is the most likely cause of this problem? Select the BEST answer.
- A. There are no permission profiles available and you need to create one first.
- B. "Edit layers by Software Blades" is unselected in the Permission Profile
- C. "Edit layers by selected profiles in a layer editor" is unselected in the Permission profile.
- D. All permissionprofiles are in use.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 29
What does the "unknown" SIC status shown on SmartConsole mean?
- A. The SIC activation key is not known by any administrator.
- B. SIC activation key requires a reset.
- C. The SMS can contact the Security Gateway but cannot establish Secure Internal Communication.
- D. There is no connection between the Security Gateway and SMS.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The most typical status is Communicating. Any other status indicates that the SIC communication is problematic. For example, if the SIC status is Unknown then there is no connection between the Gateway and the Security Management server. If the SIC status is Not Communicating, the Security Management server is able to contact the gateway, but SIC communication cannot be established.
NEW QUESTION 30
Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides protection from malicious software that can infect your network computers?
- A. Anti-Spam
- B. IPS
- C. Anti-bot
- D. Anti-Malware
Answer: C
Explanation:
Anti-Bot
The Need for Anti-Bot
There are two emerging trends in today's threat landscape:
Both of these trends are driven by bot attacks.
A bot is malicious software that can invade your computer. There are many infection methods. These include opening attachments that exploit a vulnerability and accessing a web site that results in a malicious download.
NEW QUESTION 31
Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats?
- A. Threat Emulation
- B. Threat Extraction
- C. Firewall
- D. Application Control
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
SandBlast Threat Emulation
As part of the Next Generation Threat Extraction software bundle (NGTX), the SandBlast Threat Emulation capability prevents infections from undiscovered exploits zero-day and targeted attacks. This innovative solution quickly inspects files and runs them in a virtual sandbox to discover malicious behavior.
Discovered malware is prevented from entering the network.
References:
NEW QUESTION 32
MyCorp has the following NAT rules. You need to disable the NAT function when Alpha-internal networks
try to reach the Google DNS (8.8.8.8) server.
What can you do in this case?
- A. Use the NAT settings in the Global Properties
- B. Disable NAT inside the VPN community
- C. Use network exception in the Alpha-internal network object
- D. Use manual NAT rule to make an exception
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 33
What are the three essential components of the Check Point Security Management Architecture?
- A. SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateway
- B. SmartConsole, SmartUpdate, Security Gateway
- C. Security Management Server, Security Gateway, Command Line Interface
- D. WebUI, SmartConsole, Security Gateway
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Deployments
Basic deployments:
Standalone deployment - Security Gateway and the Security Management server are installed on the
same machine.
Distributed deployment - Security Gateway and the Security Management server are installed on
different machines.
Assume an environment with gateways on different sites. Each Security Gateway connects to the Internet on one side, and to a LAN on the other.
You can create a Virtual Private Network (VPN) between the two Security Gateways, to secure all communication between them.
The Security Management server is installed in the LAN, and is protected by a Security Gateway. The Security Management server manages the Security Gateways and lets remote users connect securely to the corporate network. SmartDashboard can be installed on the Security Management server or another computer.
There can be other OPSEC-partner modules (for example, an Anti-Virus Server) to complete the network security with the Security Management server and its Security Gateways.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_SecurityManagement_WebAdminGuide/ html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_SecurityManagement_WebAdminGuide/118037
NEW QUESTION 34
Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R80 Security Management Server. He can do this via WebUI or a via CLI. Which command should be use in CLI? Choose the correct answer.
- A. The database feature has two commands: lock database override and unlock database. Both will work.
- B. remove database lock
- C. The database feature has one command lock database override.
- D. override database lock
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Use the database feature to obtain the configuration lock. The database feature has two commands:
lock database [override].
unlock database
The commands do the same thing: obtain the configuration lock from another administrator.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/75697.htm#o73091
NEW QUESTION 35
Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using
________ .
- A. Captive Portal
- B. UserCheck
- C. Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication
- D. User Directory
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To enable Identity Awareness:
1. Log in to SmartDashboard.
2. From the Network Objects tree, expand the Check Point branch.
3. Double-click the Security Gateway on which to enable Identity Awareness.
4. In the Software Blades section, select Identity Awareness on the Network Security tab.
The Identity Awareness Configuration wizard opens.
5. Select one or more options. These options set the methods for acquiring identities of managed and unmanaged assets.
AD Query - Lets the Security Gateway seamlessly identify Active Directory users and computers.
Browser-Based Authentication - Sends users to a Web page to acquire identities from unidentified
users. If Transparent Kerberos Authentication is configured, AD users may be identified transparently.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62050.htm
NEW QUESTION 36
Alpha Corp., and have recently returned from a training course on Check Point's new advanced R80 management platform. You are presenting an in-house R80 Management to the other administrators in Alpha Corp.
How will you describe the new "Publish" button in R80 Management Console?
- A. The Publish button makes any changes an administrator has made in their management session visible to all other administrator sessions and saves it to the Database.
- B. The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session and publishes a copy to the Check Point Cloud of R80 and but does not save it to the R80
- C. The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session, publishes a copy to the Check Point of R80, and then saves it to the R80 database.
- D. The Publish button makes any changes an administrator has made in their management session visible to the new Unified Policy session and saves it to the Database.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: To make your changes available to other administrators, and to save the database before installing a policy, you must publish the session. When you publish a session, a new database version is created.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?
topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197
NEW QUESTION 37
Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?
- A. HTTPS Inspection
- B. Data Loss Prevention
- C. URL Filtering
- D. Application Control
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Check Point Application Control provides the industry's strongest application security and identity control to organizations of all sizes.
NEW QUESTION 38
What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?
- A. Low Security and No Screening above Network Layer
- B. High Performance
- C. Application Independence
- D. Scalability
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Packet Filter Advantages and Disadvantages
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/smb/help/utm1/8.2/7078.htm
NEW QUESTION 39
Which command can you use to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?
- A. cpmq set
- B. Cpmqueue set
- C. Cpmq config
- D. Set cpmq enable
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
References:
NEW QUESTION 40
Which rule is responsible for the user authentication failure?
- A. Rule 5
- B. Rule 4
- C. Rule 6
- D. Rule 3
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 41
What are the three essential components of the Check Point Security Management Architecture?
- A. SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateway
- B. SmartConsole, SmartUpdate, Security Gateway
- C. Security Management Server, Security Gateway, Command Line Interface
- D. WebUI, SmartConsole, Security Gateway
Answer: A
Explanation:
DeploymentsBasic deployments:
Assume an environment with gateways on different sites. Each Security Gateway connects to the Internet on one side, and to a LAN on the other.
You can create a Virtual Private Network (VPN) between the two Security Gateways, to secure all communication between them.
The Security Management server is installed in the LAN, and is protected by a Security Gateway.
The Security Management server manages the Security Gateways and lets remote users connect securely to the corporate network. SmartDashboard can be installed on the Security Management server or another computer.
There can be other OPSEC-partner modules (for example, an Anti-Virus Server) to complete the network security with the Security Management server and its Security Gateways.
NEW QUESTION 42
In which scenario is it a valid option to transfer a license from one hardware device to another?
- A. From a 4400 Appliance to a 2200 Appliance
- B. From a 4400 Appliance to an HP Open Server
- C. From an IBM Open Server to a 2200 Appliance
- D. From an IBM Open Server to an HP Open Server
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 43
Which options are given on features, when editing a Role on Gaia Platform?
- A. Read/Write, None
- B. Read/Write, Read only, None
- C. Read/Write, Read Only
- D. Read Only, None
Answer: B
Explanation:
RolesRole-based administration (RBA) lets you create administrative roles for users. With
RBA, an administrator can allowGaia users to access specified features by including those features in a role and assigning that role to users. Each role can include a combination of administrative (read/write) access to some features, monitoring (readonly) access to other features, andno access to other features.
You can also specify which access mechanisms (WebUI or the CLI) are available to the user.
Note - When users log in to the WebUI, they see only those features that they have read- only or read/write access to. If they have read-only access to a feature, they can see the settings pages, but cannot change the settings.
Gaia includes these predefined roles:
You cannot delete or change the predefined roles.
Note - Do not define a new user for external users. An external user is one that is defined on an authentication server (such as RADIUS or TACACS) and not on the local Gaia system.
NEW QUESTION 44
After the initial installation the First Time Configuration Wizard should be run. Select the BEST answer.
- A. Connection to the internet is required before running the First Time Configuration wizard.
- B. First time Configuration Wizard can only be run from the WebUI.
- C. First Time Configuration Wizard can be run from the command line or from the WebUI.
- D. First Time Configuration Wizard can be run from the Unified SmartConsole.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Check Point Security Gateway and Check Point Security Management require running the First Time Configuration Wizard in order to be configured correctly. The First Time Configuration Wizard is available in Gaia Portal and also through CLI.
To invoke the First Time Configuration Wizard through CLI, run the config_system command from the Expert shell.
NEW QUESTION 45
Fill in the blank: When LDAP is integrated with Check Point Security Management, it is then referred to as
_______
- A. User Administration
- B. User Center
- C. User Directory
- D. UserCheck
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Check Point User Directory integrates LDAP, and other external user management technologies, with the
Check Point solution. If you have a large user count, we recommend that you use an external user management
database such as LDAP for enhanced Security Management Server performance.
NEW QUESTION 46
Which directory holds the SmartLog index files by default?
- A. $FWDIR/log
- B. $SMARTLOG/dir
- C. $SMARTLOGDIR/data
- D. $FWDIR/smartlog
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 47
Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?
- A. show all connections
- B. show connections
- C. fw conn all
- D. fw ctl pst pstat
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 48
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